> Are you really wanting the government to accept the value of
> something made from free labor, as an in-kind cost when no
> cost was incurred?
I don't know if I understand this question. As far as I know, cost-sharing
on federal grants can include the value of something regardless of whether
actual money was paid out for it. I thought that was the whole idea behind
in-kind contributions. A-110 says that volunteer services can be valued and
included as cost share. By definition, volunteer services are "free labor".
> Does your organization really have to
> ask other people if it is "OK" to reap compounded profits
> from no investment?
I really don't understand. I didn't think my question was so bizarre. I
don't understand the idea of "compounded profits" as it relates to the
question I asked.
>
> Is your organization taking profits from labor that isn't
> paid for? Are they now wanting to take taxpayers' money for
> having used free labor to produce something they didn't pay
> for? Sounds like your employeer may be on to whole new ways
> of exploiting both their employees and the rest of the US
> citizens. Can this really be viewed as being "OK" within
> your organization? Let alone legal? Do you really need to
> ask?
My basic question remains, is a recipient allowed to report as an in-kind
contribution the value of time and effort donated by employees of the
recipient? A-110 clearly states that the value of time and effort donated
by "professional and technical personnel, consultants and other skilled and
unskilled labor" is reportable as cost share. So my question was is this
true for time and effort donated by employees of the recipient when such
time and effort has not been compensated?
I appreciate the response to my original question, but I don't understand
it. Maybe someone can help me out. . .
Lesley Cephas
Institute for Sustainable Communities
Montpelier, VT
xxxxxx@together.net